[vitfin]

I don’t understand the question, why the money in post year end bank statement dropped? It should be increased, right?

The debtors paid to the client at the year end then the debtors recorded this transaction. However, due to the delay in bank transfer, the client would not received the money until post year end. Therefore, it will make sense if the question said: “he checks the post year end bank statement and finds out that the money had just increased”.

And in this situation, the auditor have to raise the adjusting entry for the differences (if material) due to the requiring of IFRS/ IAS no. … (I forgot the no.)

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