Forum Replies Created
- AuthorPosts
- February 9, 2014 at 4:51 am #157116
I passed at 59%. It is the highest mark in all my ACCA journey. In my memory, I at least got 30-39 twice, and 40-49 once. I sat at these exams in China and Canada. So many things happened during those years. For completing this paper, so much my precious life is put into it. I am so happy that my pain and worry is ended today.
A very important message that I would like to pass is that reviewing F5 knowledge is very important for passing P5. I analysed why I did not pass P5 at the first attempt like other 8 papers because I got F5 exempted. Even though P5 does not look as hard as other papers and everyone can make some points, but if you do not have solid F5 knowledge, your answers may be superficial or repeated, not relating questions to the roots and to the solutions.
Opentuition is highly recommended because it not only provide P5 course but also provide F5. All for free! But in P5 revision part, I hope it can provide more lectures for the future students. Thank you! John Moff is an excellent lecturer.
December 5, 2013 at 10:36 pm #150895The Q1 i does not ask to comments on the calculations. I think only calculations are enough.
But I have not reviewed performance gap part. When asked planning, I just moved some knowledge from F5 talking about variance between budget and flexed budget.
I chose Q4. League table looks like appearing in a technical article. Q2 I omitted RIFD in my revision.
Other part is ok.December 2, 2013 at 7:00 pm #149297Thanks!
September 20, 2013 at 5:56 pm #140924Like variance anaylysis, it is included in P5 syllabus, but to what depth we should learn? Some calculations in mix variance, yield variance is kinda of headache for me.
February 9, 2013 at 5:26 am #116548I got 37% fail…What is wrong? How can I do better? Why every time I try harder, but result gets lower? I trust Opentuitions. It is the best lessons that I had ever attended. I think there is something wrong in my answers though I think I had covered majority part of syllabus.
I will come to a stronger person after this paper. June 2013, I am all in.
December 7, 2012 at 4:25 am #110466This time? non financial measurement is not much.
December 6, 2012 at 8:32 pm #110451Disaster for me.
I lost total 8 marks in rolling budgeting.
I am asked to suggest a budget method for marketing division. However, I sugget introduce transfer pricing policy among four divisions. And beyond budget method to adapt to market fluactuation.I only did a lot of calculations on profitability, gearing, and liquidity, but comment very shortly. I am not sure whether marks can be given to these calculations.
Even worse, in EVA calculation. I only calculated for year 2012. Have you calculated for 2011 too?
At last, I should say THANK YOU to John and angry***and our group. I have attended many classes in P5, but I should say John gives the best lecture. You will find that on condition that you studied his F5 lecture.
December 6, 2012 at 12:03 am #106916read article about EVA
December 4, 2012 at 9:11 pm #109414I do not think minimax regret is using weighted probabilities. angryhamtaro?
December 4, 2012 at 9:00 pm #109413So Minimax regret and expected value are both risk-neutral?
December 4, 2012 at 7:43 pm #109411How about expected value? I thought expexted value is for risk-neutral using weighted average probabilities. Isn’t it right?
December 4, 2012 at 4:51 am #109409Sorry, John. You explain well in the lecture, but when I read past year answer, I am a little bit confused.
Pilot Paper Q1 answer”risk averse is to assume worst outcome, and seek to minimise the effect” My question is that why is it “Maxmin” but not “Minimin” outcome?
In this sentence, risk averse means the “minmax regret” or “maximin” ?
November 29, 2012 at 1:36 am #107856sunnyfish1000@hotmail.com
Thanks.November 29, 2012 at 1:35 am #108203Yes, it covers almost all.
November 11, 2012 at 4:13 am #106600Thanks! I need too!
November 11, 2012 at 4:11 am #106229Take D for example. average debtor weeks is 5.8, actual revenue is 15M. (given in the question)
then you can calculate accounts receivable/15m= 5.8/52 ( because one year has 52 weeks) then you can get accounts receivable =1,673,000“less than 30 days 1,300,000”
“31day-61day 321,000”after deduction them, you can get “more than 60days” is 52,000.
October 24, 2012 at 2:59 am #105857Thanks for guju’s question and angryhamtaro’s answer!
October 24, 2012 at 1:12 am #104618Can I join this group? I feel lonely to study P5 by myself. I failed many times, but I cannot figure why every time I felt good after the tests but results made me disappointed…
PS: I am in the middle of Canada.
London (United Kingdom – England) Monday, October 22, 2012 at 5:00:00 PM BST UTC+1 hour
Winnipeg (Canada – Manitoba) Monday, October 22, 2012 at 11:00:00 AM CDT UTC-5 hoursIs any group in weekends?
When+How to join you? Thanks!November 25, 2011 at 7:44 am #89463Capital employed is a balance sheet figure,
NOPAT is an income statement figure.Here assume Goodwill(GW)is an intangible assets which will add value to business in the future, so it is owned by the company as a kind of capital, then the capital figure should include value of GW, and it should be amortised every years like a fixed asset.
That is the way to think of EVA, because it consider some factors that brings or will bring value to company, and adjust accounting figure PAT to NOPAT more likes cash flow.
June 26, 2010 at 4:13 am #63489Where is the info coming from? eaminer will be changed in Decmber 2010?
June 26, 2010 at 4:08 am #64508I don’t know.
I hope God helps me like last time!June 26, 2010 at 4:08 am #64509I don’t know.
I hope God helps me like last time!June 26, 2010 at 4:07 am #64507I don’t know.
I hope God helps me like last time!June 26, 2010 at 4:03 am #63594I have prepared several hedges for exchange/interest rate for a long time, at last they are not tested at all!
- AuthorPosts