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- June 8, 2015 at 5:50 pm #255218
terrible exam. I will not live in denial that i failed. now looking for a resit in Dec 2015. No! No! no hope of making. Wasted so much time on q1. 2hrs on one question. that was big mistake!! I should have moved on to Section B!!!
My exam strategy to be revised and remodelled for a resit in Dec 2015.
February 18, 2015 at 9:38 am #229046Thank you sir and much appreciated!
February 13, 2015 at 6:23 am #228205Kkkk! Ok, thanks sir for the explanation. Much appreciated! I hope in the exam it will not get worse than working W3B.
February 8, 2015 at 1:39 am #22611060%. Thumps up to the Open Tuition lectures!!!!
February 8, 2015 at 1:37 am #22610760%
February 8, 2015 at 1:33 am #22610081%. John Moffat is the Open Tuition lecturer for F9. My appreciation!!
February 8, 2015 at 1:28 am #22609781%. I owe it to F9 lecturer John Moffat!!!!! I will always be grateful to him!!
February 5, 2015 at 10:55 am #225324The Alkemist story is truly inspiring. Thanks for the post. How many courses at professional level were you doing per one exam sitting!! Any response will be highly appreciated!
February 3, 2015 at 10:28 pm #225100Oh!! Now got it! Thanks sir and much appreciated!! the adjustment is already there in the income statement and therefore i can not do it twice in W4B SOCI.
February 3, 2015 at 10:17 pm #225097Thank you very much as now I am reflecting Working (W4B SOCI) which is their NCI share of this yrs profit plus their share of the post acq cons ret ears. The cons ret ears contains all the provision adjustment which has included $1000 cost.
However is there a possibility that we can have any PUP adjustment to the nci share of this yr profit in W4B SOCI?
February 3, 2015 at 2:35 pm #225027Thank you for this quick response and the wonderful live lectures!!!!I have fully practiced by solving example 4 at least many times and watched the lecture twice. But at the end I fell into this trap of trying to share the provision to the NCI and then that left me confused as to why the NCI was spared from this share of the cost.
But I will skip that line of thought and stick to the importance of the timing of the announcement.
December 10, 2014 at 10:00 am #219950Ok. Thanks. This means my MCQ grade goes up to 34 out of 40. I m so grateful to you Open tuition for helping me pass the MCQ. Hopefully the whole exam on that dreaded day on 8 Feb 2015.
December 8, 2014 at 7:28 am #219261Thank you Mr Moffat for your generosity. I am pretty sure anyone who goes through all the OT lectures will have no problem in getting a pass.
We have sailed through F9 except for some bizzare MCQ questions not within the study guides!!
December 5, 2014 at 7:33 pm #218675yeah. mcqs were pretty a nightmare!!!!!
October 6, 2014 at 3:45 pm #203647Thank you! I really missed this one for several days.
October 2, 2014 at 1:01 pm #203261Hi there! my email address is lmwambetania@nbsmw.com. copy and paste it.
September 15, 2014 at 7:12 am #194977Alkemist
Thanks for coming as moderator. Really enjoy your contribution. Gives another angle to view Mr Gromit answers.September 12, 2014 at 1:38 pm #194767Thanks for your response. Every time you something my mind opens up. Thank you.
Basically what i have noticed, to add to your response, “twice over” could mean total depreciation is $12 which is over the half the profit before depreciation of $(17.85/2)=$8.9. As the depreciation costs appears more on top of the the equation, this has the effect depressing the ROCE figure. This is a biased measure….Mr Moffat-Still my mind is struggling but after some days I should be able to get around it.
September 12, 2014 at 8:36 am #194719Mr Moffat, Kindly assist on this sentence in the the suggested solution of Opera Ltd:
“Perhaps, most fundamentally, it is bases on accounting profits expressed net of deduction for depreciation provisions, rather than cash flows. This effectively results in double counting for the initial outlay…..” What does the examiner mean by double outlay?
The examiner explains further: “…the capital cost is allowed for twice over, both in the numerator of the ARR calculation and also in the denominator…” This make me more confused. What does it mean to say “…twice over…” Kindly any help with an illustration will be appreciated.
September 12, 2014 at 8:22 am #194718“4 Usually we do use initial cost + scrap / 2 (and if you had done that here you would have got full marks, even though the answer would be a bit different). What has been done here is actually more accurate.”
Thanks Mr Moffat for highlighting the above. I didnt sleep well last night when I saw a different calculation of average capital employed. Anyway I have a new tool in my toolbox for the exam.
September 10, 2014 at 2:27 pm #194563Thank you very much. I rest now!
September 9, 2014 at 12:31 pm #194412Thank you Mr Moffat for your kindness in assisting us to prepare for this exam. I now understand how to use the two formulas!
September 9, 2014 at 9:42 am #194402Mr Moffat. This formula for ((100/96)^12/2-1)% looks like the Past Dividend growth in the Open Tuition notes Page 93. From there I can not find my way out to connect these formulas. I believe I missed an earlier knowledge.
September 9, 2014 at 2:19 am #194378Thank you Mr Gromit
September 8, 2014 at 2:50 pm #194316Yes sir. There is this horrible formula ((100/96)^12/2-1)% as the effective cost in BPP text. There is this formula of 4/96*6*100% as the effective cost on Open Tuition-Page 24-Management of working capital. Thankfully you have answered this on Management of Receivables and Payables Example 1.
There was this deduction ($4m less $26,666) on Ruby. Thankfully you have also answered this previous postings of students.
All the above are quite a nightmare for one who is studying alone and left me spinning all the night. Thank you Mr Moffat.
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