March 2026 ACCA Exams Results

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james8500

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Viewing 17 posts – 1 through 17 (of 17 total)
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  • #691611
    Avatarjames8500
    Participant
    • Topics: 68
    • Replies: 17
    • ☆☆

    Sorry, June 2013

    #691376
    Avatarjames8500
    Participant
    • Topics: 68
    • Replies: 17
    • ☆☆

    It is the same question – thanks!

    John can you please have a look.

    Thanks

    #691334
    Avatarjames8500
    Participant
    • Topics: 68
    • Replies: 17
    • ☆☆

    Just an FYI, an element of the question is based on NPV with a requirement to calculate the value of a project that starts in 4 years and proceeds for 15 years and calculating the percentage change in a particular variable that would result in a negative NPV (sale price per unit in this question)

    An extremely difficult question all round.

    Chapter 10 in OT notes and lecture – is this sufficient to be able to complete the sensitivity of a particular variable?

    I could answer approx. 5 out of the 25 marks available on that question. And that’s not to say I would have scored 5/25 in the real exam.

    Thanks

    #691234
    Avatarjames8500
    Participant
    • Topics: 68
    • Replies: 17
    • ☆☆

    Sorry – June 2015 Bento Co

    #690758
    Avatarjames8500
    Participant
    • Topics: 68
    • Replies: 17
    • ☆☆

    Thanks John. Lectures are a big help.

    #690725
    Avatarjames8500
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    • Topics: 68
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    • ☆☆

    The solution calculates basis of 0.46 based on initial inter-bank rate of 4.09%

    The same basis of 0.46 was used when the interest rate went up/down by 0.9%

    Basis when rate went up: (0.95.01-94.76) = 0.25
    Unexpired basis (0.25*2/5) = 0.1

    (100-4.99) 95.01-0.1 = 94.91

    (94.76-94.91)/400*(32*2m) = 24,000 loss

    deposit at risk (48m*4.79%*4/12) = 766,400 – 24000 = 742,400

    effective (742,400/48m)*12/4 = 4.6%

    Loss in 33,600. If i had used the new basis of 0.25 – would I still get the full credit?

    In addition, the options calc:

    Where is the 94.55 coming from? Why is it not 94.81

    I am getting 94.81 from:

    100-4.99 = 95.01 – 94.5 (stike price) = basis of 0.51 creating an unexpired basis of 0.2

    Futures price = 95.01-0.2 = 94.81 !!!

    this question is terrible or has my mind just gone blank!!

    #690426
    Avatarjames8500
    Participant
    • Topics: 68
    • Replies: 17
    • ☆☆

    Ok thanks.

    In terms of Washi Co, I do not understand which sides of the spread to use when calculating the cross rate. Finding the logic behind the solution difficult.

    JPY/EUR 129.2-132.4
    ARD/EUR 92.7-95.6

    Cross rate: 132.4/92.7 = 0.70

    Why not 129.2/95.7?

    This yields 0.74

    I have been through the below thread – just not grasping it.

    https://opentuition.com/topic/cross-rates-washi-sep-2018-kaplan-exam-kit/

    Thanks

    #687621
    Avatarjames8500
    Participant
    • Topics: 68
    • Replies: 17
    • ☆☆

    Hi John,

    If share exchange amounts to 2.55:1- where is the 18:7 coming from?

    I understand 18/7 = 2.55 approx.

    How is the 18:7 being calculated?

    Thanks

    #622926
    Avatarjames8500
    Participant
    • Topics: 68
    • Replies: 17
    • ☆☆

    is this a question from acca related material?

    #620654
    Avatarjames8500
    Participant
    • Topics: 68
    • Replies: 17
    • ☆☆

    “Even if you were to be asked such a question in AA (which is unlikely given current exam style and standard)”

    This question comes from the AA specimen which I passed – is this a good indicator of performance so far or is the specimen more basic than the thing?

    While control risk element is not perfect, considering the rest of my answer, is it of an acceptable quality of the standard expected in AA?

    #614996
    Avatarjames8500
    Participant
    • Topics: 68
    • Replies: 17
    • ☆☆

    Tutor, can you send the link to that video. I cant see it on list of videos?

    #614579
    Avatarjames8500
    Participant
    • Topics: 68
    • Replies: 17
    • ☆☆

    FYI this is in the FR workbook p.249

    #584543
    Avatarjames8500
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    • Topics: 68
    • Replies: 17
    • ☆☆

    Yes I got the same. Did you include advertising costs when calculating profit for the variance question?

    Struggled with the veggie pot target cost question too.

    Found it extremely difficult – been studying for 5 months.

    It was a tough one.

    #583465
    Avatarjames8500
    Participant
    • Topics: 68
    • Replies: 17
    • ☆☆

    That is, the receipt of 500,000 in 6 months.

    In the solution, only the 300,000 payment was hedged.

    I would have thought the net amt would have been hedged.

    #583305
    Avatarjames8500
    Participant
    • Topics: 68
    • Replies: 17
    • ☆☆

    Ps I understand the straight line equation to be y=a+bx

    #579765
    Avatarjames8500
    Participant
    • Topics: 68
    • Replies: 17
    • ☆☆

    I got the 0.05 by calculating – 60mins/1200units.

    #527863
    Avatarjames8500
    Participant
    • Topics: 68
    • Replies: 17
    • ☆☆

    Hi, can you please help me with the below question:

    Can you please explain why the below solution is different to what we are being taught?

    A company uses weighted average method to value its WIP, following information is available :
    Regarding Process X of the company:
    Value Opening WIP 660units $990
    Units added in period 1,500units $2,250
    Units transferred to Process Y 1,050 $1,575

    If the units are 50% complete for material, what is the value of closing WIP of Process X for
    period 1?

    A $1,110
    B $832.50
    C $1,665
    D $1,125

    I calculate E.U (660+1050+(1110*50%) = 2265
    Total Process Costs = (990+2250) = 3240
    Cost per EU = 3240/2265 = 1.43
    Closing WIP = (1110*50%)*1.43 = 793.65

    SOLUTION

    Value of closing WIP = Value of opening WIP + Value of units transferred into the process – Value of units transferred out of the process = $990 + $2,250 – $1,575 = $1,665.

Viewing 17 posts – 1 through 17 (of 17 total)

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