[iza1]

Sorry John. I came across this in another qualification and your lecture for MA was really helpful. Thank you for all your help. You are truly changing people’s lives.

[iza1]

Please can you help with this too :

Based upon evidence from a number of years, PCM’s sales revenue is believed to be normally
distributed with a mean of $50,000 and a standard deviation of $8,000. The following
calculations have been used to illustrate what these signify:
I $50,000 + (1.65 × $8,000) = $63,200
II $50,000 – (1.65 × $8,000) = $36,800

Answer

The probability that sales revenue will be in the range $36,800 to $63,200 is 90%.

The book doesn’t explain this and i tried calculating coefficient of variation but I dont think that is the way

[iza1]

Oh I get it now. Thank you very much for giving me clarity

[iza1]

Sir sorry but I had confusion again with self review..he already finished his term as eqcr right.. now he is going to cease that and become NED ..
Self review arises when auditors review their own work .but he no longer is part of audit

[iza1]

Hi sir

If we are capitalising borrowing cost , that part is never included as part of finance cost in PL ?

[iza1]

Understood about heat and lower. My concern is machine costs and insurance specifically attributable part. But the specifically attributable part is variable isn’t it. I incur it only if I make it. So when decidinh shouldn’t that be part of consideration as well

[iza1]

Sir but I have to compare cost of making with cost of buying right

So when I do cost of making I will include Dm , Dl, heat and power, the variable elements in machine costs and 40% of depreciation and insurance isn’t it

But that’s ignored in answer

[iza1]

Thank you

[iza1]

Thank you

[iza1]

Also sir part b of same question says FV should be recognised as a current asset . Hows it an asset ?

where can i get more info on the accounting treatment of this issue

[iza1]

So should we consolidate from 1 May 2017 ?
So no equity accounting at all ?

[iza1]

Hi John

please can you help ..
is the term impairing trade receivable same as creating provision for bad debt

[iza1]

i get it now !!! thank you very much

[iza1]

Perfect. You are the best 🙂

[iza1]

Can you also ease tell what is the difference between impairing trade receivables and the above two terms

[iza1]

Thank you very much for your brilliant clarifications 🙂
God bless you

[iza1]

That makes sense.. So ideally consolidation package would be more detailed info about each subsidiary for the group auditor and for the parent company mgt . isnt it

[iza1]

Hello Sir ,

As i went through the question i had a couple more doubts. Can you kindly clarify them ?

1. Ryder is not an investment entity.
But when they say group operates in hospitality and then say ryder does not trade .what does that mean ?
What does Ryder do then ?

2. With respect to primal burgers disposal since its after year end it would come under the scope of IAS 10. But shouldn’t it be a adjusting event as the board approved this in March which provides evidence of conditions at the year end

3. If the investment in peppers is considered as a JOINT VENTURE , is there any significance to the date August as its just one month before year end in our calculations ?

[iza1]

i dont understand this “they are needing to pay for 100/90 x 30/60 hours of which 10/90 hours are idle.”
how is it 10/90
if we pay for 100/90 then idle time is for every 100 we pay 10 hours so 10/100 right ?

[iza1]

Yes because this was part of procedure question.
And thank you very very much

[iza1]

i understood it now thank you

[iza1]

I saw this in BPP kit Q121 Expert Co. and the answer says vice versa. So I am a little confused

[iza1]

so taxable for the employee ?

[iza1]

Make sense. Thank you

[iza1]

Thank you vey muhc

[Author]

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